#1 without #2, but not #2 without #1

[Lizakers]

we can go #1 without going #2

but we can't go #2 without going #1

get it?

why is this? is there some kind of a trigger that makes us go #1 whenever we go #2 ?
http://s33.photobucket.com/albums/d59/hicucr/?action=view&current=bush.jpg

 

[thegoat121886]

i never pee when i poop, or the other way around. it's always one or the other.
My guess in your situation tho is built up pressure. When you relax the muscles down there, it just comes out. idk

 

[play2much2004]

speak for yourself

 

[vendetta]

Prolly because the amount of muscles required to go #2 compresses the bladder at the same time. While going #1 doesn't require the same muscle force usedfor #2... but really I got no idea.