I have a hard time taking things seriously when they make fear mongering comparisons to Saddam. It's bad journalism and an obvious sign that the author is trying to scare the reader. Wouldn't the facts make your point? Why make these sinister comparisons unless there's an obvious bias or underlying intention?
From the same article.
University of Virginia political scientist Dr. Larry Sabato, who has studied voting in African American-dominated precincts, told Philly.com he had occasionally seen instances where 100 percent of the vote went to the Democratic candidate, citing precincts in Chicago and Atlanta which recorded no votes for the GOP’s candidate, Sen. John McCain, in 2008.
Yes, he adds that it warrants a second look and I'm sure the immediate response would be "WELL THATS JUST PROOF OBAMA CHEATED IN 2008 AS WELL" but it's happened before and it certainly isn't a smoking gun. And I'd love to see articles or complaints from people in these counties that claim they voted for Romney, yet not a single vote was counted. I'm not even being sarcastic, I'd really like to see some first hand complaints of people living in these areas that didn't cast a Romney vote come forward and say they voted for him. That would be a lot more credible. If I'm missing these reports, my mistake.
Edit:
Even in the first point of the original article, what's that mean exactly? 70,000 people couldn't cast their ballot? 70,000 people complained about long lines? 70,000 people asked for directions to their polling place? Define these problems exactly and I will consider that source.
I click randomly throughout that list at the "sources" and it's sketchy news at best. Heavily democratic or poor areas voted in high numbers for Obama? Shocking. Some are 2nd hand accounts from random people on Twitter? That's unquestionable evidence?
Another link upon further investigation, the one citing 8,000 more people registered to vote in Wood county than the voting age population, well that population would be taken from the 2010 U.S. Census. Which means it's not an accurate reflection of those who were in the voting district a full two years later. It's well within reason at least 8,000 more people were age eligible to vote since the Census. So how does that prove fraud again?
If the article uses "evidence" without carefully considering the facts of the matter, then I struggle to take the article seriously.