PLEASE HELP!!! MATH QUESTION, TEST UR SKILLS

[thipham]

For each time up at bat, a baseball player has a 70% chance ofmaking an out, a 10% chance of getting walked, and a 20% chance ofgetting a hit. Estimate the probability that , out of 5 at-bats, theplayer gets at least one hit.

A) About 30%
B) About 70%
C) 100%
D) About 20%
E) About 90%

Any help is greatly appreciated and thanks in advance!

70 percent of getting an out probably meaning him getting strucked out, and 10 percent getting a walk meaning 4 balls no hit. his only chance of hitting is only 20 percent and the likelihood missing is 80 . the probably is 1/5 getting a hit. 1/5 is like 20/100 or 20 percent. i would say him having a percentage of 20 percent. but the question isnt really straightforward with him hitting the ball and making it to first base or him hitting the ball as a foul.

 

[me4u2night]

The correct answer is B, about 70%.

 

[me4u2night]

Originally Posted by ThiPham


For each time up at bat, a baseball player has a 70% chance ofmaking an out, a 10% chance of getting walked, and a 20% chance ofgetting a hit. Estimate the probability that , out of 5 at-bats, theplayer gets at least one hit.

A) About 30%
B) About 70%
C) 100%
D) About 20%
E) About 90%

Any help is greatly appreciated and thanks in advance!

70 percent of getting an out probably meaning him getting strucked out, and 10 percent getting a walk meaning 4 balls no hit. his only chance of hitting is only 20 percent and the likelihood missing is 80 . the probably is 1/5 getting a hit. 1/5 is like 20/100 or 20 percent. i would say him having a percentage of 20 percent. but the question isnt really straightforward with him hitting the ball and making it to first base or him hitting the ball as a foul.

OP, the correct answer is B, about 70%. 
You can listen to me now and enjoy the rest of your weekend, or kick yourself on Monday in school (upon review of the question) for not listening to me.

 

[waveyjoneslocker]

Me4u2Night -- I hope you're not serious.

EDIT: If you do not have a sufficient grasp on remedial math, do not mislead this poor youth.
That means you, guy under me.

 

[mrben23]

100%! He hits the ball 20% at bat. That is 1/5. If he bats 5 times, he will hit it once out of those 5 attempts. That's a .200 batting average, right? Anyway, umm.. I'm not sure. 

 

[that g daz]

Originally Posted by WaveyJonesLocker

Originally Posted by ShaunHillFTW49

Originally Posted by WaveyJonesLocker

Originally Posted by ShaunHillFTW49

20%  COH X 5 AB=100% - 70% COO = 30% + (10% COW X 5 AB) = 80% - 10x5 AB= 30%

That's a whole lot of work just to arrive at the wrong answer.

Really?
#1 20%  per at bat multiplied by 5 at bats means he will likeley get a hit. Subtract the 70% K rate you get back to 30%. Of course a walk is as good as a K in this scenario so subtract that 50% you get -20. Add  50 to get 30%

j/k. Good luck OP

Ok, I'm only going to say this once.  The likelihood of him getting a hit doesn't increase the more at bats he has.
Using the heads/tails analogy, would I be more likely to get a tails after 10 consecutive heads? NO!
Therefore, the answer is 20%.

It's not asking for the probability that he hits the ball on his fifth at bat; it's asking that given he has 5 at bats, what's the probability he gets at least one hit. 

The answer is 1-(.8 )^5 = approx 70%

 

[algarve23]

20% or 100%

 

[c money 88 05]

well OBVIOUSLY the answer isn't 20% or 100% OP, please tell me you at least understand that. If not I wish you well on other tests.

Just making an educated guess I'd say 30%.

let's see if I can remember how to work this out...

1.0 is the whole
.2 is the probability of getting a hit which means there's a .8 chance of NOT getting a hit.

After thinking about it for a while, I believe the equation might be something like:
1- (1-P)^# at bats

so 1-(1-.2)^5
(.

^5, which equals .32768

1-.32768 = .67232

so if that's right the answer would be about 70%.
Those would be my only 2 possibilities right there, and if this were a test and I was answering, I'd go with my 70% answer.
none of the other 3 answers make sense really. I wasn't gonna post at all in here with the whole no homework rule/I'm on spring break, but there were so many random answers floating around I knew you were lost

hope I helped/was right, I didn't look up %*## and I just woke up, can't be no worse though

 

[bamazing]

wow

its B OP

 

[uncoturner]

probability that batter gets AT LEAST one hit out of 5: P(X>=1)

probability that he gets NONE out of 5: P(X=0)

P(X>=1) = 1 - P(X=0) = 1 - ( .8 )^5

people have said this before me, im just trying to make it clearer.

 

[me4u2night]

Originally Posted by WaveyJonesLocker

Me4u2Night -- I hope you're not serious.

EDIT: If you do not have a sufficient grasp on remedial math, do not mislead this poor youth.
That means you, guy under me.

Yea, I'm very serious... 

 

[jackiechizzan]

Some of you guys are missing the part where it says he'll get "at least one hit." So no it's not 20%.